Aortic Dissection Detection Risk Score (ADD-RS) & D-dimer โ 20 MCQs
Mixed clinical vignettes + recall. Correct option highlighted after any attempt. Click an option to submit.
Q1 (Recall) Which of the following is NOT a component considered in the ADD-RS categories?
- Abrupt onset of pain
- Known thoracic aortic aneurysm
- Ripping/tearing character of pain
- Elevated LDL cholesterol
Answer: D. Elevated LDL cholesterol is not part of ADD-RS. ADD-RS uses high-risk conditions, high-risk pain features, and high-risk exam features (e.g., Marfan, abrupt severe pain, pulse deficit).
Q2 (Clinical) A 62-year-old man with sudden severe chest pain radiating to the back, BP 160/90 in right arm and 110/70 in left arm, new diastolic murmur. How many ADD-RS points (categories) does he have?
Answer: C. 2 โ He has high-risk pain features (abrupt, severe) and high-risk exam features (pulse/BP differential and new aortic regurgitation murmur). That fits โฅ2 risk categories.
Q3 (Recall) Which time window is most relevant for using D-dimer to help exclude acute aortic dissection?
- >7 days since symptom onset
- Within 24 hours of symptom onset
- Only after 48 hours
- Timing is irrelevant
Answer: B. D-dimer is most useful within the first 24 hours โ sensitivity declines with time from symptom onset as clot burden and fibrinolytic signals change.
Q4 (Clinical) A 45-year-old with Marfan syndrome presents with sudden chest pain. ADD-RS category count is:
Answer: B. 1 โ Marfan is a high-risk condition within one category. Additional features (pain, exam) would add more categories.
Q5 (Recall) In the combined ADD-RS + D-dimer strategy from ADvISED, which combination is considered sufficient to safely rule out an acute aortic syndrome in many patients?
- ADD-RS = 0 and D-dimer < 500 ng/mL
- ADD-RS โฅ2 and D-dimer < 500 ng/mL
- ADD-RS = 1 and D-dimer > 1000 ng/mL
- ADD-RS = 0 and D-dimer > 500 ng/mL
Answer: A. ADD-RS 0 + negative D-dimer has very high NPV and is often used to avoid imaging in low-risk patients.
Q6 (Clinical) A 70-year-old woman with syncope and focal right arm weakness plus severe back pain arrives. Which ADD-RS category is flagged by the neurological deficit?
- High-risk pain features
- High-risk examination features
- High-risk condition only
- No category โ neuro signs unrelated
Answer: B. Focal neurologic deficit in the context of chest/back pain is a high-risk exam feature suggestive of possible branch vessel involvement from dissection.
Q7 (Recall) Typical D-dimer threshold used to “rule out” AAS in many studies is:
- < 100 ng/mL
- < 500 ng/mL
- < 1000 ng/mL
- No threshold is used
Answer: B. A conventional D-dimer cutoff of 500 ng/mL (FEU) is commonly used for exclusion strategies in AAS algorithms.
Q8 (Clinical) A patient with ADD-RS = 1 and D-dimer = 1200 ng/mL โ next best step?
- Observe and repeat D-dimer in 6 hours
- Obtain urgent imaging (CTA chest)
- Discharge with outpatient follow up
- Start aspirin and send home
Answer: B. Positive D-dimer with ADD-RS โฅ1 warrants definitive imaging (e.g., contrast CTA) to evaluate for AAS.
Q9 (Recall) Which of the following is a limitation of relying on D-dimer to exclude AAS?
- D-dimer is 100% specific for AAS
- D-dimer is never elevated in PE
- D-dimer can be elevated in many other conditions (reducing specificity)
- D-dimer is not measurable by standard labs
Answer: C. D-dimer is sensitive but not specific โ it’s elevated in PE, MI, infection, cancer, recent surgery, and with age.
Q10 (Clinical) A 58-year-old with chest pain 36 hours ago now has D-dimer 200 ng/mL. How should you interpret the negative D-dimer?
- Definitively excludes AAS regardless of time
- Less reliable because beyond 24 hours; proceed with caution
- Means AAS is present
- D-dimer is falsely low and should be ignored
Answer: B. The sensitivity of D-dimer drops with time; a negative result >24 hours after onset is less reassuring and imaging should be considered based on clinical picture.
Q11 (Recall) ADD-RS groups the 12 risk markers into how many categories?
Answer: C. The 12 markers are grouped into 3 categories: high-risk conditions, high-risk pain features, and high-risk exam features.
Q12 (Clinical) A young patient presents with sudden chest pain and a history of recent aortic valve replacement 3 weeks ago. This history is categorized in ADD-RS as:
- High-risk pain feature
- High-risk condition (recent aortic manipulation)
- Low risk โ unrelated
- Only counts if family history present
Answer: B. Recent aortic manipulation (surgery, instrumentation) is a high-risk condition in ADD-RS.
Q13 (Recall) In the ADvISED study, the combined algorithm aimed to reduce unnecessary CT scanning while maintaining safety. Which performance metric is most important for a rule-out strategy?
- Positive predictive value
- Specificity
- Negative predictive value / sensitivity
- Likelihood ratio of a positive test only
Answer: C. For exclusion strategies, high sensitivity and high NPV are crucial to avoid missing true cases.
Q14 (Clinical) A patient with sudden tearing chest pain, hypotension, and pulseless lower extremities arrives. ADD-RS category count:
- 0
- 1
- 2โ3 (multiple categories)
- Cannot be determined
Answer: C. Multiple exam features (hypotension/shock, pulse deficits) and high-risk pain suggest โฅ2โ3 categories โ high pretest probability; urgent imaging and vascular/CT surgery consultation needed.
Q15 (Recall) Which imaging test is most commonly used as the initial definitive diagnostic test for suspected aortic dissection in hemodynamically stable patients?
- Chest X-ray
- Contrast CT angiography (CTA) of the chest
- Plain abdominal ultrasound
- Non-contrast MRI
Answer: B. CTA chest is widely available, fast, and highly accurate for AAS in stable patients; TEE/MRI are alternatives in some scenarios.
Q16 (Clinical) A 50-year-old with chest pain and ADD-RS = 0 has D-dimer = 450 ng/mL. What is the most appropriate immediate action?
- Immediate CTA for everyone regardless of D-dimer
- Consider ruling out AAS without imaging based on ADD-RS 0 + negative D-dimer
- Give thrombolysis
- Schedule outpatient echo in 1 week
Answer: B. ADD-RS 0 + D-dimer <500 is considered low enough risk in many protocols to avoid immediate imaging, considering full clinical context.
Q17 (Recall) Which of these is a high-risk exam feature in ADD-RS?
- History of smoking
- Well-controlled diabetes
- Pulse deficit or BP differential
- Hyperlipidemia
Answer: C. Pulse deficits or systolic BP differentials between limbs are classic high-risk exam features for possible dissection.
Q18 (Clinical) In a patient with high clinical suspicion (ADD-RS โฅ2), a negative D-dimer should:
- Always rule out AAS
- Not change plan โ proceed to imaging because pretest probability is high
- Obviate need for imaging if <500 ng/mL
- Require only repeat ECG
Answer: B. In high pretest probability (ADD-RS โฅ2), imaging should be performed regardless of D-dimer result due to risk of false negatives.
Q19 (Recall) Which statement about the ADD-RS + D-dimer approach is TRUE?
- It eliminates the need for clinical judgment entirely
- It helps reduce unnecessary imaging when applied to appropriate patients
- It should be used only in pediatric patients
- It was proven to diagnose dissection without imaging
Answer: B. The combined approach reduces unnecessary CT scans in low-risk patients, but clinical judgment remains essential.
Q20 (Clinical) A 66-year-old with abrupt chest pain has ADD-RS = 1. D-dimer returns 480 ng/mL. Which is the best next step?
- Discharge home โ follow up with PCP
- Consider ruling out AAS (no immediate imaging) if clinical reassessment confirms low overall risk
- Start high-dose heparin
- Perform immediate coronary angiography only
Answer: B. With ADD-RS = 1 and D-dimer <500, many algorithms permit ruling out AAS if overall clinical evaluation supports low risk โ though local protocols and clinical judgment apply.
Notes: ‘D-dimer < 500 ng/mL' refers to conventional FEU cutoff commonly used; local assay units/cutoffs may vary. These questions are educational โ follow institutional protocols for patient care.