Pulmonary Embolism Clinical Questions USMLE Type


๐Ÿซ Pulmonary Embolism โ€” 20 Advanced USMLE-Style Clinical Vignettes

Balanced mix: Diagnosis & Risk Stratification (10) + Management & Therapy (10). Click any option to reveal the correct answer and detailed explanation.

Q1. A 58-year-old man with active malignancy presents with sudden dyspnea and syncope. BP is 88/56 mmHg, HR 120/min, SpOโ‚‚ 86% on room air. Bedside echo shows a dilated right ventricle with hypokinesis and septal flattening. What is the most appropriate immediate step?
Immediate systemic thrombolysis (unless contraindicated)
Start low-molecular-weight heparin and observe
CT pulmonary angiography prior to any therapy
Administer IV broad-spectrum antibiotics
Answer: A. This patient has **massive (high-risk) PE** with hemodynamic instability (hypotension, syncope) and evidence of RV failure on echo. Immediate reperfusion therapy โ€” typically systemic thrombolysis โ€” is indicated unless there are absolute contraindications. While CT angiography is diagnostic, in unstable patients with high clinical suspicion and RV strain, do not delay reperfusion. In malignancy, weigh bleeding risk โ€” but hemodynamic collapse favors thrombolysis or catheter/surgical embolectomy if thrombolysis contraindicated.
Q2. A 32-year-old woman on combined oral contraceptives presents with pleuritic chest pain. Wells score is 2 (low). D-dimer is 550 ng/mL (assay cut-off 500). Which is the best next step?
Start therapeutic anticoagulation immediately
Obtain CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA)
Order a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan without further testing
Give aspirin and discharge
Answer: B. With low pretest probability but a **positive D-dimer** (above threshold), the next step is imaging โ€” usually **CTPA** (unless contraindicated, e.g., contrast allergy or pregnancy). Starting anticoagulation without imaging may be considered if imaging is delayed and clinical suspicion rises, but typical approach is to image. V/Q scanning is an alternative when CTPA cannot be done.
Q3. On a CTPA, a filling defect in a subsegmental pulmonary artery is noted in an otherwise low-risk patient with no DVT signs and low Wells score. What is the recommended management?
6 months of full-dose anticoagulation
Inferior vena cava filter placement
Consider clinical observation or short anticoagulation โ€” individualized decision
Immediate catheter-directed thrombectomy
Answer: C. Management of **isolated subsegmental PE**โ€”especially in low-risk patients without proximal DVTโ€”can be individualized. Options include clinical surveillance, repeat imaging, or anticoagulation based on risk factors for recurrence (active cancer, thrombophilia, reduced cardiopulmonary reserve). Routine IVC filters or invasive procedures are not indicated.
Q4. Which ECG finding is most specific (though not sensitive) for acute PE and suggests RV strain?
Diffuse ST elevation
Peaked T waves V1โ€“V3
New-onset atrial fibrillation
S1Q3T3 pattern (S wave in I, Q in III, inverted T in III)
Answer: D. The **S1Q3T3** pattern is a classic sign suggesting acute RV strain from PE; it is specific but insensitive. Other ECG clues include sinus tachycardia (most common), new incomplete RBBB, and T-wave inversions in V1โ€“V4. However, ECG changes are neither sensitive nor diagnostic alone.
Q5. A 70-year-old man with dyspnea is hemodynamically stable. His PESI score places him in high risk. CTPA shows segmental PE and echocardiography shows RV dysfunction. Which disposition is most appropriate?
Admit for inpatient management and close monitoring
Discharge with outpatient DOAC and follow-up in 2 weeks
Transfer for immediate surgical embolectomy
Discharge on aspirin only
Answer: A. A high **PESI** (Pulmonary Embolism Severity Index) along with RV dysfunction warrants **inpatient care** and monitoring for deterioration; consider escalation for reperfusion if hemodynamics worsen. Outpatient management is reserved for low-risk patients with adequate social support.
Q6. A 24-year-old postpartum woman with tachycardia and hypoxia; pregnancy-safe imaging is preferred. Which imaging is most appropriate to minimize fetal radiation while diagnosing PE in pregnancy?
CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) without shielding
Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan when chest x-ray is normal
Pulmonary angiography as first-line
MRI pulmonary angiography routinely
Answer: B. In pregnancy, a **V/Q scan** can be preferred when the chest X-ray is normal because it typically exposes the maternal breast to less radiation than CTPA; however, if chest x-ray is abnormal or V/Q likely nondiagnostic, CTPA may be used. MRI pulmonary angiography is not routinely used due to availability and variable sensitivity.
Q7. McConnellโ€™s sign on echocardiography refers to:
Global hypokinesis of left ventricle
Atrial septal aneurysm
Regional RV dysfunction with akinesis of the mid free wall but preserved apex
Dense spontaneous echo contrast in left atrium
Answer: C. **McConnellโ€™s sign** (akinesis of the mid-RV free wall with preserved apical contractility) is an echocardiographic pattern associated with acute PE and RV dysfunction. It helps suggest acute RV pressure overload but is not 100% specific.
Q8. Which of the following statements about D-dimer testing is true?
A normal D-dimer reliably excludes PE in patients with high pretest probability
D-dimer is specific for thrombosis
D-dimer testing is not affected by patient age
An age-adjusted D-dimer threshold improves specificity in older patients
Answer: D. **Age-adjusted D-dimer** thresholds (e.g., age ร— 10 ยตg/L for patients >50) improve specificity and reduce unnecessary imaging in older patients. A normal D-dimer cannot safely exclude PE in patients with high pretest probability. D-dimer is sensitive but not specific.
Q9. A patient with obvious DVT symptoms and high Wells score (โ‰ฅ6) should have which immediate action regarding anticoagulation?
Initiate anticoagulation promptly unless contraindicated โ€” do not wait for imaging
Wait for D-dimer result before treating
Only give prophylactic-dose anticoagulation
Perform MRI of the chest first
Answer: A. In patients with **high clinical probability** of VTE, start therapeutic anticoagulation promptly unless there are contraindications; do not delay for testing. Diagnostic imaging should follow as soon as feasible.
Q10. Which radiographic CT sign suggests right heart strain from PE?
Peripheral wedge-shaped consolidation only
Right ventricle/left ventricle diameter ratio > 0.9โ€“1.0
Miliary nodules
Enlarged pulmonary veins
Answer: B. **RV/LV diameter ratio > ~0.9โ€“1.0** on CT indicates RV dilation and correlates with RV dysfunction and worse prognosis. Peripheral wedge infarcts can be seen but do not indicate RV strain.
Q11. A stable patient with acute PE is eligible for outpatient management. Which anticoagulant regimen is generally preferred for outpatient initiation?
Unfractionated heparin IV infusion
Warfarin monotherapy without LMW heparin bridge
Direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban or rivaroxaban
Low-dose aspirin and observation
Answer: C. For many stable patients, **DOACs (apixaban, rivaroxaban, edoxaban, dabigatran)** are preferred due to oral dosing, no routine monitoring, and efficacy comparable to VKA. Note: some DOACs require an initial heparin/LMWH lead-in (e.g., dabigatran, edoxaban), whereas apixaban/rivaroxaban have single-agent regimens. Use caution in cancer-associated thrombosisโ€”LMWH or certain DOACs may be chosen.
Q12. Which of the following is a major absolute contraindication to systemic thrombolysis?
Recent minor surgery (superficial)
Hypertension controlled on meds
Age >80 alone
Recent intracranial hemorrhage
Answer: D. **Recent intracranial hemorrhage** is an absolute contraindication to systemic thrombolysis due to catastrophic bleeding risk. Major surgery within 3 weeks, recent ischemic stroke, or known intracranial neoplasm are other prohibitive conditions. Age alone is not an absolute contraindication but increases bleeding risk.
Q13. In a patient with a large PE and high bleeding risk (recent GI bleed), which intervention to prevent further emboli is indicated when anticoagulation is contraindicated?
Temporary inferior vena cava (IVC) filter
Long-term aspirin therapy
Immediate systemic thrombolysis
Therapeutic dose LMWH despite bleeding risk
Answer: A. **Temporary/ retrievable IVC filters** are indicated when there is an acute VTE and anticoagulation is contraindicated or has failed. Filters reduce the risk of recurrent PE but have risks (DVT, filter complications); remove when safe anticoagulation can be started.
Q14. A 46-year-old with PE and cancer is being considered for long-term therapy. Which anticoagulant is now commonly recommended for many patients with active cancer-associated thrombosis?
Warfarin with INR target 3โ€“4
DOAC (e.g., apixaban or edoxaban) with careful bleeding-risk assessment
Aspirin alone
No anticoagulation because cancer increases bleeding risk
Answer: B. Recent trials support the use of certain **DOACs (apixaban, edoxaban, rivaroxaban)** for **cancer-associated thrombosis**, offering similar efficacy to LMWH but with varying bleeding risks depending on tumor type (e.g., GI malignancy). Individualize therapy; LMWH remains an alternative.
Q15. After an unprovoked PE, what is the recommended minimal duration of anticoagulation in most patients?
2 weeks
6 weeks
At least 3 months, then reassess risk for extended therapy
Lifelong anticoagulation always
Answer: C. **At least 3 months** of anticoagulation is standard after a first episode of VTE (PE or DVT). For **unprovoked** events or persistent risk factors, extended anticoagulation may be recommended after individualized risk-benefit assessment. Lifelong therapy is not automatically required.
Q16. A patient with acute submassive PE (normotensive but with RV dysfunction) โ€” which statement about thrombolysis is correct?
Systemic thrombolysis is routinely recommended for all submassive PE
Thrombolysis is contraindicated in submassive PE
Anticoagulation alone is always superior to thrombolysis in submassive PE
Consider reperfusion (systemic or catheter-directed) in selected submassive PE with severe RV dysfunction or clinical deterioration
Answer: D. For **submassive (intermediate-risk)** PE, routine thrombolysis is not standard due to bleeding risk. However, **select patients** with severe RV dysfunction, biomarkers showing myocardial injury, or clinical deterioration may be considered for systemic or catheter-directed thrombolysis after multidisciplinary discussion.
Q17. Which statement about DOACs vs warfarin for PE is correct?
DOACs have similar efficacy to warfarin with lower intracranial hemorrhage risk and no routine monitoring
DOACs require weekly INR monitoring
Warfarin is preferred in most patients for convenience
DOACs are ineffective for treatment of PE
Answer: A. **DOACs** have been shown to be non-inferior to warfarin for VTE with generally lower rates of intracranial hemorrhage and the advantage of fixed dosing without routine INR monitoring. Certain clinical scenarios (severe renal impairment, mechanical heart valves, pregnancy) favor alternatives.
Q18. A PE patient with creatinine clearance of 22 mL/min needs anticoagulation. Which is the best choice?
Edoxaban standard dose
Unfractionated heparin (UFH) with careful monitoring
Standard-dose dabigatran without dose adjustment
Rivaroxaban loading dose then maintenance without adjustment
Answer: B. With **severe renal impairment (CrCl <30 mL/min)**, many DOACs are contraindicated or require caution. **UFH** (short half-life, reversible, and not renally cleared) is preferred and allows titration and rapid reversal if needed. LMWH requires dose adjustment and accumulates.
Q19. After 3 months of anticoagulation for provoked PE following major knee surgery, what is the usual recommendation?
Continue lifelong anticoagulation regardless of risk
Switch to aspirin indefinitely
Stop anticoagulation after 3 months (short course) if transient provoked risk factor resolved
Replace anticoagulation with prophylactic-dose anticoagulation long-term
Answer: C. For **PE provoked by a transient major risk factor** (e.g., recent surgery), **3 months** of therapeutic anticoagulation is typically sufficient, and therapy is discontinued thereafter unless other risk factors exist.
Q20. Which approach is best for recurrent PE despite therapeutic anticoagulation with an adequate INR on warfarin?
Stop anticoagulation and observe
Reduce warfarin dose
Switch to aspirin and statin
Evaluate for adherence/absorption issues, consider switching anticoagulant class (e.g., DOAC or LMWH) and consider IVC filter if recurrent despite appropriate therapy
Answer: D. Recurrent VTE **while therapeutic** on warfarin requires evaluation (compliance, drug interactions, malabsorption, lab assay issues). Management may include switching anticoagulant class (LMWH or DOAC) and expert consultation; IVC filter may be considered when recurrent PE occurs despite adequate anticoagulation or when anticoagulation is contraindicated.

๐Ÿซ Pulmonary Embolism โ€” 20 Advanced USMLE-Style Clinical Vignette MCQs

Balanced focus on Diagnosis, Risk Stratification, and Management | Interactive & Mobile Responsive

1. A 52-year-old man presents with sudden dyspnea after a long flight. HR 112, SpOโ‚‚ 90%. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?

A. Echocardiography
B. Ventilation-perfusion scan
C. D-dimer assay
D. CT pulmonary angiography
Explanation: In an intermediate pretest probability case, D-dimer is the first step. A negative result excludes PE, while a positive result prompts CTPA.

2. A 60-year-old postoperative woman develops acute dyspnea and hypotension. ECG shows S1Q3T3. Which echo finding supports massive PE?

A. Left atrial enlargement
B. Right ventricular dilation with septal flattening
C. Pericardial effusion
D. Hyperdynamic LV function
Explanation: RV dilation with septal flattening (โ€œD-signโ€) suggests pressure overload and massive PE. It indicates poor prognosis and supports urgent thrombolysis.

3. A 45-year-old woman on oral contraceptives has CTPA-confirmed bilateral segmental PE, hemodynamically stable. Next best step?

A. Systemic thrombolysis
B. IVC filter
C. Start low molecular weight heparin
D. Aspirin only
Explanation: Stable PE is treated with anticoagulation. LMWH or DOAC is preferred. Thrombolysis is reserved for massive PE with instability.

4. A 30-year-old man with syncope, hypotension, and dilated RV on echo. What is the next management step?

A. Immediate systemic thrombolysis
B. Start heparin only
C. IVC filter placement
D. Wait for CTPA
Explanation: Hemodynamic instability in suspected PE warrants emergent thrombolysis without delay for imaging confirmation.

5. A 67-year-old woman with DVT and dyspnea. Which tool estimates PE probability before imaging?

A. CHAโ‚‚DSโ‚‚-VASc
B. CURB-65
C. Geneva score
D. Wells score
Explanation: The Wells score estimates pretest probability of PE and guides further testing with D-dimer or imaging.

6. A 40-year-old man with PE is started on warfarin. What is the minimum overlap duration with LMWH?

A. 2 days
B. 3 days
C. 5 days and INR โ‰ฅ2 for 24 hrs
D. Until D-dimer normalizes
Explanation: LMWH should overlap with warfarin for at least 5 days and until INR โ‰ฅ2 for 24 hours to avoid paradoxical thrombosis during warfarin initiation.

7. In PE, what ECG finding correlates with RV strain?

A. ST elevation in V1-V3
B. S1Q3T3 pattern
C. PR depression
D. U waves
Explanation: The S1Q3T3 pattern (deep S in lead I, Q and inverted T in lead III) suggests acute cor pulmonale due to PE-induced RV strain.

8. What is the preferred anticoagulant in pregnancy with PE?

A. LMWH
B. DOAC
C. Warfarin
D. Fondaparinux
Explanation: LMWH is preferred in pregnancy as it does not cross the placenta and has predictable pharmacokinetics.

9. A 72-year-old man with massive PE and contraindication to thrombolysis. Next management step?

A. Continue anticoagulation only
B. Surgical embolectomy
C. IVC filter
D. Catheter-directed thrombolysis
Explanation: Catheter-directed thrombolysis is preferred when systemic lysis is contraindicated. Surgical embolectomy is reserved for failed cases.

10. Which biomarker is most useful for risk stratification in PE?

A. BNP
B. Troponin
C. D-dimer
D. CRP
Explanation: Elevated troponin and BNP indicate RV strain and worse prognosis. D-dimer aids diagnosis, not risk stratification.

11. A patient with submassive PE is started on anticoagulation. After 48 hours, he deteriorates hemodynamically. Next step?

A. Initiate systemic thrombolysis
B. Continue heparin only
C. Switch to warfarin
D. Place IVC filter
Explanation: Deterioration despite anticoagulation indicates progression to massive PE. Thrombolysis improves RV function and survival.

12. What duration of anticoagulation is recommended after first provoked PE?

A. 1 month
B. 3โ€“6 months
C. 3 months
D. Indefinite
Explanation: Provoked PE (e.g., surgery, trauma) requires 3 months of anticoagulation. Longer duration is needed for unprovoked or recurrent PE.

13. Which of the following is a contraindication to thrombolytic therapy in PE?

A. Recent ischemic stroke (within 3 months)
B. Controlled hypertension
C. Age >75 years
D. PE with hypoxia
Explanation: Recent ischemic stroke is an absolute contraindication to systemic thrombolysis due to risk of intracranial bleeding.

14. Which CTPA finding is most specific for PE?

A. Mosaic perfusion
B. Intraluminal filling defect
C. Ground-glass opacities
D. Pleural effusion
Explanation: The hallmark of PE on CTPA is a central intraluminal filling defect within the pulmonary artery branch, confirming diagnosis.

15. A 58-year-old male with unprovoked PE. What additional test should be considered?

A. Carotid Doppler
B. PET-CT
C. Malignancy screening (CT abdomen, PSA, mammography)
D. ANA testing
Explanation: Unprovoked PE warrants evaluation for occult malignancy as a potential underlying cause of hypercoagulability.

16. In PE, which feature distinguishes massive from submassive PE?

A. Presence of hypotension or shock
B. Elevated troponin
C. RV strain on echo
D. Hypoxia
Explanation: Massive PE is defined by sustained hypotension or shock, while submassive PE has RV strain without hypotension.

17. What is the primary mechanism of death in untreated massive PE?

A. Pulmonary infarction from lung tissue necrosis
B. Right ventricular failure due to acute pressure overload
C. Hemorrhagic shock
D. Ventricular arrhythmia
Explanation: Massive PE causes sudden increase in pulmonary vascular resistance leading to acute right ventricular (RV) pressure overload, RV dilation, reduced LV filling, hypotension, and cardiogenic shock โ€” the usual terminal pathway. Pulmonary infarction is less commonly the cause of death.

18. A patient with acute PE has creatinine clearance (CrCl) 22 mL/min. Which anticoagulant is preferred initially?

A. Rivaroxaban without adjustment
B. Unfractionated heparin (UFH) with monitoring
C. Standard-dose dabigatran
D. Edoxaban standard dosing
Explanation: In severe renal impairment (CrCl <30 mL/min), many DOACs and LMWH accumulate and are either contraindicated or require caution. UFH is preferred initially due to short half-life, no renal clearance, and easy reversibility/monitoring.

19. A patient had PE provoked by major knee surgery and completed 3 months of anticoagulation. What is the usual recommendation?

A. Continue lifelong anticoagulation
B. Switch to aspirin indefinitely
C. Stop anticoagulation after 3 months if provoking factor resolved
D. Continue prophylactic-dose anticoagulation indefinitely
Explanation: For a PE provoked by a transient major risk factor (e.g., recent surgery), a limited course of 3 months is standard and anticoagulation is typically stopped thereafter if the provoking factor has resolved and no ongoing risk exists.

20. A patient develops recurrent PE despite therapeutic warfarin (INR in target range). What is the best next approach?

A. Stop anticoagulation and observe
B. Reduce warfarin dose
C. Switch to aspirin and statin
D. Evaluate for adherence/absorption or lab error, consider switching anticoagulant class (e.g., to LMWH or a DOAC) and consider IVC filter in select situations
Explanation: Recurrent VTE on therapeutic anticoagulation requires investigation (compliance, drug interactions, malabsorption, lab issues). Management may include switching anticoagulant class (LMWH often used, especially in cancer), higher-intensity therapy in select cases, and consult with hematology. An IVC filter is reserved for recurrent PE despite adequate therapy or when anticoagulation is contraindicated.

๐Ÿซ Pulmonary Embolism Clinical Questions โ€” USMLE Type Advanced Level

20 Case-Based MCQs with Explanations | Diagnostic & Management Pearls | USMLE Step 2 CK / Step 3 / NEET-SS / MRCP

1. A 48-year-old woman presents with sudden dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain two days post-cesarean section. She is tachycardic but normotensive. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. What is the best initial diagnostic test?

A. Echocardiography
B. D-dimer
C. V/Q scan
D. CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA)
Explanation: CTPA is the diagnostic gold standard for PE in hemodynamically stable patients with intermediate-to-high pretest probability. Echocardiography is useful in unstable cases for bedside diagnosis.

2. Which ECG finding most strongly supports acute pulmonary embolism?

A. Diffuse ST elevation
B. Left bundle branch block
C. S1Q3T3 pattern
D. PR depression
Explanation: The S1Q3T3 pattern (S wave in lead I, Q wave and inverted T in lead III) suggests acute right heart strain, classically associated with PE, though it is neither sensitive nor specific.

3. A patient presents with PE confirmed on CTPA. He is hemodynamically stable. Which of the following initial treatments is most appropriate?

A. Thrombolysis with alteplase
B. Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
C. IVC filter
D. Catheter-directed thrombolysis
Explanation: In stable PE, anticoagulation with LMWH or a DOAC is first-line therapy. Thrombolysis is reserved for massive PE with hemodynamic compromise.

ยฉ 2025 MedicalPrep | Pulmonary Embolism Advanced Clinical MCQs for USMLE / NEET-SS / MRCP. Pulmonary Embolism MCQs, USMLE Step 2 CK, Step 3, Clinical Vignettes, CTPA, Wells Score, Thrombolysis in PE, Anticoagulation.


๐Ÿ’ก Important FAQs on Pulmonary Embolism โ€” Quick Review

1๏ธโƒฃ What are the classic symptoms of pulmonary embolism (PE)?

Sudden-onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, cough, and hemoptysis are classic. Syncope, tachypnea, or unexplained hypoxia may also occur. Remember: symptoms are often nonspecific, so clinical suspicion is key.

2๏ธโƒฃ What is the most common ECG finding in PE?

Sinus tachycardia is the most frequent finding. S1Q3T3 pattern and right axis deviation indicate acute right heart strain but occur in fewer than 20% of cases.

3๏ธโƒฃ How does the Wells Score help in PE diagnosis?

The Wells Score stratifies patients into low, intermediate, or high pretest probability. – <2 โ†’ Low probability (consider D-dimer first) – 2โ€“6 โ†’ Intermediate – >6 โ†’ High probability (proceed directly to imaging)

4๏ธโƒฃ When is D-dimer testing useful?

D-dimer is most valuable when PE probability is low or intermediate. A negative D-dimer can effectively exclude PE in these cases. Itโ€™s not useful in high pretest probability situations or postoperative patients (false positives).

5๏ธโƒฃ What imaging modalities confirm PE?

CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA) is the gold standard. V/Q scan is an alternative if CTPA is contraindicated (e.g., renal failure, contrast allergy, pregnancy).

6๏ธโƒฃ What defines massive vs. submassive PE?

Massive PE: Hypotension (SBP <90 mmHg for >15 min) or shock. Submassive PE: Normal BP but RV dysfunction or myocardial injury (โ†‘ troponin/BNP, echo signs).

7๏ธโƒฃ What is the immediate treatment for hemodynamically stable PE?

Start anticoagulation โ€” LMWH or DOAC (e.g., apixaban, rivaroxaban). Thrombolysis is reserved for unstable (massive) PE.

8๏ธโƒฃ When is systemic thrombolysis indicated?

Indicated in massive PE with shock or sustained hypotension. Not routinely used in stable or submassive PE unless deterioration occurs.

9๏ธโƒฃ What is the duration of anticoagulation after PE?

โœ… 3 months for provoked PE (e.g., surgery, trauma)
โœ… โ‰ฅ6 months or indefinite for unprovoked or recurrent PE

๐Ÿ”Ÿ When should an IVC filter be used?

Reserved for patients with PE or DVT who have an absolute contraindication to anticoagulation or recurrent PE despite adequate therapy.

11๏ธโƒฃ What biomarkers suggest right heart strain?

Elevated troponin and BNP reflect RV strain and correlate with increased mortality risk.

12๏ธโƒฃ What are the echo findings in PE?

Right ventricular dilation, hypokinesis, McConnell sign (RV free wall akinesia with preserved apex motion), and flattening of the interventricular septum (โ€œD-signโ€).

13๏ธโƒฃ How do DOACs compare to warfarin for PE?

DOACs (apixaban, rivaroxaban, edoxaban, dabigatran) are equally effective and safer (less intracranial bleeding). Warfarin remains preferred in renal failure or valvular disease.

14๏ธโƒฃ What is the recurrence risk after unprovoked PE?

Approximately 10% at 1 year and up to 30% by 10 years without continued anticoagulation. Hence, consider extended therapy in unprovoked cases.

15๏ธโƒฃ What preventive measures reduce PE risk post-surgery?

Early ambulation, pneumatic compression devices, and pharmacologic prophylaxis (LMWH or low-dose UFH) in high-risk surgical patients.

Keywords: Pulmonary Embolism FAQs, USMLE Quick Review, PE Management, Wells Score, Thrombolysis, Anticoagulation, VTE, NEET SS Pulmonology.

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