A systematic approach to describing murmurs

A systematic approach to describing murmurs

A systematic approach to describing murmurs
A systematic approach to describing murmurs

When you hear a murmur, document its characteristics using the following parameters: 

  • Timing: Is it systolic, diastolic, or continuous?
  • Shape: Does it increase in intensity (crescendo), decrease (decrescendo), or both (crescendo-decrescendo)? Or is it steady (plateau)?
  • Location: Identify the valve area where the murmur is loudest.
    • Aortic area: 2nd right intercostal space (ICS).
    • Pulmonic area: 2nd left ICS.
    • Tricuspid area: 4th left ICS.
    • Mitral area: 5th left ICS at the midclavicular line (apex).
  • Radiation: Does the sound spread to other areas, such as the axilla (mitral regurgitation) or the neck (aortic stenosis)?
  • Intensity: Use the Levine grading scale, from Grade I (faint) to Grade VI (audible without a stethoscope). A palpable vibration, or “thrill,” is associated with a grade IV or higher murmur.
  • Pitch and Quality: Descriptors can include high-pitched, low-pitched, blowing, harsh, or rumbling.
  • Maneuvers: How do different positions or actions affect the sound?
    • Handgrip: Increases afterload, strengthening murmurs like aortic regurgitation.
    • Valsalva/Standing: Decreases preload, amplifying murmurs like those in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
    • Squatting: Increases preload, amplifying most murmurs except hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. 

Common murmurs for medical students

Systolic murmurs

  • Aortic Stenosis (AS):
    • Timing/Shape: Mid-systolic, crescendo-decrescendo.
    • Location/Radiation: Loudest at the aortic area, radiates to the carotids.
    • Other findings: A harsh quality, possibly a weak, slow-rising carotid pulse.
  • Mitral Regurgitation (MR):
    • Timing/Shape: Pansystolic (holosystolic), plateau.
    • Location/Radiation: Loudest at the apex, radiates to the axilla.
    • Other findings: A blowing quality, often requires the patient to be in the left lateral decubitus position to be best heard.
  • Mitral Valve Prolapse (MVP):
    • Timing/Shape: Mid-to-late systolic murmur preceded by a mid-systolic click.
    • Location: Loudest at the apex.
    • Maneuvers: Louder with Valsalva and standing.
  • Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD):
    • Timing/Shape: Pansystolic, high-pitched, and harsh.
    • Location: Loudest at the tricuspid area.
    • Note: The intensity is inversely proportional to the size of the defect; smaller holes create louder, harsher murmurs due to more turbulent flow. 

Diastolic murmurs

  • Aortic Regurgitation (AR):
    • Timing/Shape: Early diastolic, decrescendo.
    • Location/Radiation: Loudest at the left sternal border.
    • Maneuvers: Best heard with the patient sitting up and leaning forward, holding their breath after exhalation.
  • Mitral Stenosis (MS):
    • Timing/Shape: Mid-diastolic, low-pitched, and rumbling.
    • Location: Loudest at the apex.
    • Maneuvers: Best heard with the bell of the stethoscope with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position. 

How to use this information in clinical practice

  1. Start broad: Determine if the murmur is systolic, diastolic, or continuous by timing it with the carotid upstroke.
  2. Locate the sound: Find the point of maximum intensity to identify the likely affected valve.
  3. Refine your diagnosis: Use the other descriptive qualities—shape, pitch, quality, and radiation—to create a differential diagnosis.
  4. Perform maneuvers: Use simple maneuvers to confirm your hypothesis and strengthen your clinical picture.
  5. Refer for confirmation: Remember that your assessment is a clinical hypothesis. An echocardiogram is required for a definitive diagnosis.

Systematic Murmur Description

When you hear a murmur, approach it step by step using location, timing, intensity, pitch, quality, radiation, and maneuvers.


1️⃣ Timing (When does it occur?)

  • Systolic (between S1 and S2)
    • Ejection systolic (crescendo-decrescendo): Aortic stenosis, pulmonary stenosis
    • Holosystolic/pansystolic (uniform): Mitral regurgitation, tricuspid regurgitation, VSD
    • Late systolic: Mitral valve prolapse
  • Diastolic (after S2, before S1)
    • Early diastolic: Aortic regurgitation, pulmonary regurgitation
    • Mid-diastolic: Mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis
    • Late diastolic (presystolic): Mitral stenosis accentuated by atrial contraction
  • Continuous (throughout systole and diastole)
    • PDA, AV fistula, venous hum

2️⃣ Location (Where is it best heard?)

  • Aortic area: 2nd RICS (right 2nd intercostal space), parasternal
  • Pulmonic area: 2nd LICS, parasternal
  • Tricuspid area: Lower LICS, parasternal
  • Mitral area (apex): 5th LICS, midclavicular line

Tip: “APE To Man” mnemonic: Aortic – Pulmonic – Tricuspid – Mitral


3️⃣ Radiation (Where does it go?)

  • Aortic stenosis → carotids
  • Mitral regurgitation → axilla
  • Tricuspid regurgitation → right sternal border
  • VSD → apex or lower sternal border

4️⃣ Intensity (Grade / Loudness)

Levine scale (I–VI):

  1. Barely audible
  2. Soft but audible
  3. Moderate, easy to hear
  4. Loud, with thrill
  5. Very loud, can hear with stethoscope partly off chest, thrill
  6. Audible with stethoscope off chest, thrill present

5️⃣ Pitch

  • High-pitched: Mitral regurgitation, aortic regurgitation
  • Medium: Aortic stenosis (usually ejection), pulmonic stenosis
  • Low-pitched: Mitral stenosis, VSD (small), tricuspid stenosis

Use bell for low-pitched, diaphragm for high-pitched murmurs


6️⃣ Quality / Character

  • Harsh / blowing / musical / rumbling / crescendo-decrescendo
  • Examples:
    • Harsh ejection → aortic stenosis
    • Blowing → regurgitant lesions
    • Rumbling → mitral stenosis

7️⃣ Shape / Configuration

  • Crescendo: Increases in intensity
  • Decrescendo: Decreases
  • Crescendo-decrescendo: Ejection murmur
  • Holosystolic / plateau: Uniform throughout systole

8️⃣ Maneuvers / Physiologic Changes

  • Valsalva / standing: Decreases venous return, reduces most murmurs except HOCM, MVP (increase)
  • Squatting / handgrip: Increases afterload; handgrip accentuates MR, AR, VSD; squatting decreases HOCM intensity
  • Inspiration: Increases right-sided murmurs (TR, PR)
  • Expiration: Accentuates left-sided murmurs (MR, AS)

9️⃣ Associated Findings

  • Thrills, clicks (e.g., MVP), opening snaps (MS), S3/S4
  • Signs of volume overload: pulmonary edema, jugular venous distension

10️⃣ Summary Table (Mnemonic: “T-RIM-P-Q”)

FeatureQuestion to askExample
TimingWhen? Systolic/DiastolicMid-systolic ejection
RadiationWhere does it go?Carotids, axilla
IntensityGrade 1–63/6 systolic
Mechanics / ManeuversIncreases / decreasesSquatting accentuates AS
PitchHigh / low / mediumHigh-pitched blowing
QualityHarsh / rumbling / musicalHarsh ejection
LocationBest heardAortic area

Clinical Tip: Always describe murmurs in this order:
Timing → Location → Radiation → Intensity → Pitch → Quality → Maneuvers → Associated findings


🩺 Systematic Approach to Describing Heart Murmurs — 20 MCQs

1. Which feature is assessed first when describing a cardiac murmur?
Timing (systolic, diastolic, continuous)
Pitch
Quality
Radiation
Timing is the first key descriptor—determining if the murmur is systolic, diastolic, or continuous narrows the differential diagnosis.

2. A pansystolic murmur is best associated with which condition?
Mitral regurgitation
Aortic stenosis
Aortic regurgitation
Pulmonic stenosis
A pansystolic (holosystolic) murmur begins with S1 and continues to S2, classically due to mitral or tricuspid regurgitation or VSD.

3. The aortic area is located at:
2nd right intercostal space, parasternal line
2nd left intercostal space
Lower left sternal border
Apex (5th ICS midclavicular line)
The aortic area is the 2nd right intercostal space, parasternal—where aortic valve murmurs are best heard.

4. Radiation of an aortic stenosis murmur is typically toward the:
Carotid arteries
Axilla
Right lower sternal border
Back
Aortic stenosis produces a harsh ejection murmur that radiates to the carotids due to turbulent flow through the valve.

5. Which maneuver increases the intensity of right-sided murmurs?
Inspiration
Expiration
Handgrip
Squatting
Inspiration increases venous return to the right heart, enhancing right-sided murmurs (TR, PR).

6. The murmur of mitral stenosis is best described as:
Low-pitched, rumbling, mid-diastolic murmur with opening snap
High-pitched blowing systolic murmur
Harsh ejection systolic murmur
Continuous machinery murmur
Mitral stenosis produces a low-pitched rumbling murmur due to turbulent flow across the narrowed mitral orifice.

7. Which murmur decreases with squatting?
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)
Aortic stenosis
Mitral regurgitation
Tricuspid regurgitation
Squatting increases venous return and LV volume, reducing the outflow obstruction in HOCM and thus decreasing murmur intensity.

8. Which grade corresponds to a murmur with a palpable thrill?
Grade IV or higher
Grade II
Grade III
Grade I
A palpable thrill appears with grade IV or louder murmurs, indicating significant turbulence.

9. A continuous machinery murmur at the left infraclavicular area is typical of:
Patent ductus arteriosus
Aortic stenosis
Mitral regurgitation
VSD
PDA causes a continuous “machinery” murmur due to persistent aortopulmonary flow during systole and diastole.

10. Which murmur increases with handgrip?
Mitral regurgitation
Aortic stenosis
HOCM
MVP
Handgrip increases systemic vascular resistance, augmenting the intensity of regurgitant murmurs like MR and AR.

11. The murmur of VSD is:
Harsh holosystolic at left lower sternal border
Blowing systolic at apex
Ejection systolic at aortic area
Continuous
VSD produces a harsh pansystolic murmur maximal at the left lower sternal border due to high LV-to-RV gradient.

12. Which murmur is described as “blowing” in quality?
Regurgitant lesions (e.g., MR, AR)
Stenotic lesions
Innocent murmurs
Pericardial rubs
Regurgitant flow produces high-velocity, blowing murmurs, especially in MR and AR.

13. The murmur of aortic regurgitation is best heard at:
Left 3rd intercostal space (Erb’s point)
Apex
2nd right ICS
Lower left sternal border
AR murmur is early diastolic, blowing, best heard at Erb’s point with patient leaning forward in expiration.

14. Which feature differentiates innocent murmurs?
They are soft, short, and vary with position
Associated with thrills
High-grade intensity
Diastolic nature
Innocent murmurs are soft (≤ grade II), short, and position-dependent, with no pathology.

15. Which murmur is accentuated by Valsalva maneuver?
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
Aortic stenosis
Mitral regurgitation
Mitral stenosis
During Valsalva, reduced venous return decreases LV size, worsening obstruction and murmur intensity in HOCM.

16. What causes the “musical” murmur quality?
Vibrations of valve or chordae tendineae
Turbulent flow alone
Mitral annular calcification
Pericardial friction
A “musical” or “cooing” murmur arises when vibrating valve leaflets or chordae resonate at harmonic frequencies.

17. Which statement about pitch is true?
High-pitched murmurs are best heard with the diaphragm
Low-pitched murmurs use the diaphragm
All murmurs use the bell
Pitch is unrelated to disease type
The diaphragm accentuates high-pitched murmurs (MR, AR), while the bell detects low-pitched ones (MS, S3).

18. A late systolic murmur with mid-systolic click suggests:
Mitral valve prolapse
Aortic stenosis
Aortic regurgitation
Tricuspid regurgitation
MVP causes a mid-systolic click (prolapse) followed by a late systolic murmur due to regurgitation.

19. Expiration accentuates which murmurs?
Left-sided murmurs (MR, AS)
Right-sided murmurs
Continuous murmurs
Innocent murmurs
Expiration increases left ventricular filling, enhancing left-sided murmurs such as MR and AS.

20. The presence of an opening snap after S2 suggests:
Mitral stenosis
Aortic stenosis
Mitral regurgitation
Aortic regurgitation
An opening snap follows S2 in mitral stenosis due to sudden tensing of stenotic valve leaflets.

30 FAQs — Medical Students (General & Clinical)

Tap a question to reveal the cream-box answer. Hover effect: light brown. Mobile-responsive. Designed for quick revision and teaching.

Use short focused blocks (Pomodoro 25–50 min), alternate active learning (questions, flashcards) with passive review (notes), prioritize high-yield topics, and schedule weekly spaced repetition sessions.

Read abstract → conclusions → figures/tables → methods, then introduction. Critically appraise PICO, sample size, bias, outcomes, and clinical relevance.

Introduce yourself, confirm patient ID and consent, perform focused history/exam using a checklist, verbalize reasoning, summarize findings, and propose next steps. Time management is key.

Use lead groups: II, III, aVF → inferior; V1–V4 → anterior; V5–V6, I, aVL → lateral. Correlate with supplying coronary artery (RCA, LAD, LCx).

Follow the systematic approach: Timing → Location → Radiation → Intensity (grade I–VI) → Pitch → Quality → Maneuvers → Associated signs (S3/S4, click, snap).

Assess pH (acidosis/alkalosis), PaCO₂ (respiratory component), HCO₃⁻ (metabolic component). Determine primary disturbance and compensation; use anion gap to refine metabolic acidosis.

Start with clinical probability (Wells or Geneva). If low/moderate, a D-dimer; if positive or high probability, CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA). Consider V/Q scan if contraindications to CT.

Focus on drug classes, mechanisms, major side effects, and major contraindications. Use flashcards, compare similar drugs in tables, and practice clinical vignettes linking drugs to diseases.

Check if the expected compensation matches the measured values. If not, suspect mixed disorders. Use formulas (Winter’s, expected PaCO₂) and calculate anion gap and delta ratio for metabolic acidosis mixtures.

Use a stepwise method: rate → rhythm → axis → intervals → QRS morphology → ST/T changes → correlate clinically. Practice many strips and learn patterns (AF, flutter, blocks, STEMI territories).

Indicated for high-risk cardiac conditions (prosthetic valve, prior infective endocarditis, certain congenital heart disease) during dental or infected mucosal procedures — follow current guideline recommendations for agents/dosing.

Use a problem-oriented mini-presentation: 1-sentence summary (age, complaint, keyDx), brief HPI, salient exam, most relevant investigations, differential (top 3), plan and rationale.

Early recognition, blood cultures, broad-spectrum IV antibiotics within the first hour, fluid resuscitation (e.g., 30 mL/kg crystalloid if hypotensive), source control, and frequent reassessment.

Systematic review: AP/PA/LAT? Quality/rotation? Cardiomediastinal silhouette, lung fields (zones), pleural spaces, lines/devices, and look for common pathologies (consolidation, effusion, pneumothorax).

Listen for S1 and S2: systolic murmurs occur between S1 and S2; diastolic murmurs occur after S2 before S1. Use carotid pulse palpation — murmur that occurs with carotid upstroke is systolic.

“SNOOP” red flags: Systemic symptoms, Neurologic signs, Onset sudden (thunderclap), Older age/new onset, Previous cancer or immunosuppression — consider imaging/lumbar puncture.

Start with the most life-threatening and most likely conditions based on red flags and local epidemiology; use history clues to rule in/out quickly and choose targeted investigations.

Use narrowest effective agent, treat appropriate duration, avoid unnecessary broad-spectrum use, de-escalate based on cultures, and consider local resistance patterns.

Determine tonicity (hypotonic, isotonic, hypertonic), volume status (hypovolaemic, euvolaemic, hypervolaemic), and calculate urine sodium/osmolality to guide cause and treatment.

Use structured format (SBAR: Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation), highlight pending tasks, escalate unstable patients, and confirm recognition from receiver.

Anion gap = Na⁺ − (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻). Elevated gap suggests accumulation of unmeasured anions (e.g., lactic acidosis, DKA, toxins). Helps classify metabolic acidosis.

Suspect with fever, neck stiffness, altered mental status. Do blood cultures, give empiric IV antibiotics and dexamethasone promptly; perform CT head if focal signs or raised ICP before LP.

Practice concise explanations, understand core principles rather than rote facts, rehearse common scenarios aloud, and review exam-specific procedures and guidelines.

Iron deficiency, anaemia of chronic disease (less commonly microcytic), thalassaemia, and sideroblastic anaemia. Use ferritin, TIBC, and Hb electrophoresis to differentiate.

Explain diagnosis, proposed intervention, benefits, common and serious risks, alternatives (including no treatment), and check patient understanding and voluntary agreement; document the discussion.

Look at FEV₁/FVC ratio: reduced → obstructive (e.g., COPD, asthma). Reduced FVC with normal/high ratio → restrictive disease. Use bronchodilator response and lung volumes for further distinction.

Consider systemic causes (heart failure, liver disease, renal disease), local causes (venous insufficiency, lymphedema), medication-related, and assess pitting, distribution, and timing.

Plan a short prioritized task list each morning (3–5 items), do focused learning around patient care opportunities, and review short learning goals after rounds to consolidate knowledge.

Troponin detects myocardial injury — not specific to type I MI. Consider myocarditis, supply–demand mismatch (type II MI), renal failure, PE, and chronic structural disease. Correlate clinically and with ECG.

Use specific, behavior-focused feedback (what, impact, suggestion). Be timely, balanced, and invite reflection. As a receiver, listen actively, ask clarifying questions, and make a plan to improve.


NEET-SS / USMLE / INI-CET — 20 Clinical MCQs

Clinical vignettes. Click any option to reveal the correct answer (light green-yellow) and incorrect choice (light red). Explanations appear immediately.
1. A 62-year-old man with long-standing hypertension presents with sudden severe tearing chest pain radiating to the back. BP is 180/100 mmHg in right arm and 140/90 mmHg in left arm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: A — Tearing chest pain with inter-arm BP difference strongly suggests acute aortic dissection (hypertension is major risk factor).
2. A 25-year-old woman presents with heat intolerance, weight loss, palpitations and a diffusely enlarged thyroid. Examination shows exophthalmos and pretibial myxedema. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: B — Graves’ disease classically causes diffuse goiter, ophthalmopathy (exophthalmos), pretibial myxedema, and hyperthyroid symptoms.
3. A 45-year-old alcoholic man presents with severe upper abdominal pain radiating to the back, elevated amylase and lipase. Within 48 hours he develops ARDS. Which complication is most likely?
Answer: C — Severe pancreatitis commonly causes systemic inflammatory response and can precipitate ARDS within 48–72 hours.
4. A 70-year-old diabetic woman presents with sudden onset slurred speech and right-sided weakness. CT shows a left MCA territory infarct. She is within 2 hours of symptom onset and has no contraindications. Best next step?
Answer: D — For ischemic stroke within the therapeutic window (usually ≤4.5 h), evaluate and proceed with IV thrombolysis if eligible.
5. A 30-year-old woman presents with sudden pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea after prolonged travel. Vitals: HR 120, SpO₂ 88% on room air. D-dimer is elevated. Best diagnostic test?
Answer: A — CT pulmonary angiography is the preferred diagnostic test for suspected PE when renal function allows and CTPA is available.
6. A 55-year-old smoker with progressive exertional dyspnea and decreased DLCO on PFTs likely has which condition?
Answer: B — Emphysema reduces DLCO and presents with progressive exertional dyspnea in long-term smokers.
7. A 28-year-old female with fever, malar rash and arthralgia has hematuria and red cell casts. Which autoimmune disease is most likely?
Answer: C — SLE commonly presents in young women with malar rash, arthralgia, and lupus nephritis causing hematuria and RBC casts.
8. A 65-year-old with chronic AF and a recent ischemic stroke needs anticoagulation. Which is the most appropriate long-term strategy?
Answer: D — AF with stroke history warrants long-term anticoagulation to prevent recurrent embolic events, unless contraindicated.
9. A 40-year-old presents with crushing chest pain; ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Which artery is most likely occluded?
Answer: A — ST elevation in II, III, aVF indicates inferior wall MI, most commonly due to RCA occlusion.
10. A 7-year-old child with fever, conjunctivitis, mucocutaneous changes and cervical lymphadenopathy is suspected of Kawasaki disease. The most concerning complication to monitor is:
Answer: B — Kawasaki disease can cause coronary artery aneurysms; timely IVIG reduces this risk.
11. A 50-year-old alcoholic has confusion, ophthalmoplegia and ataxia. Which vitamin deficiency is responsible?
Answer: C — Wernicke encephalopathy (confusion, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia) is due to thiamine deficiency in alcoholics.
12. A 28-year-old with sudden severe unilateral flank pain and gross hematuria likely has a ureteric stone. Which test is most appropriate initially?
Answer: D — Non-contrast CT KUB is the most sensitive and specific initial imaging for suspected ureteric calculi.
13. A patient with suspected bacterial endocarditis has multiple blood cultures positive for Staphylococcus aureus and new MR. Best next step in management?
Answer: A — Staph aureus endocarditis with new regurgitation requires urgent IV bactericidal therapy and surgical evaluation for valve repair/replacement if indicated.
14. A 60-year-old man with long-term GERD develops progressive dysphagia and weight loss. Endoscopy shows Barrett esophagus changes and an ulcerated lesion. Most likely diagnosis?
Answer: B — Long-standing GERD with Barrett’s predisposes to esophageal adenocarcinoma; progressive dysphagia and weight loss are suspicious features.
15. A 22-year-old college student presents with fever, headache, neck stiffness and petechial rash. Suspected meningococcal meningitis. Immediate best action?
Answer: C — Suspected bacterial meningitis requires urgent blood cultures and immediate empirical IV antibiotics (and dexamethasone per guidelines) rather than waiting for LP if delays exist.
16. A 48-year-old with chronic liver disease has ascites. The SAAG (serum-ascites albumin gradient) is 1.8 g/dL. Interpretation?
Answer: D — SAAG ≥1.1 g/dL indicates portal hypertension (e.g., cirrhosis, heart failure) as the cause of ascites.
17. A 35-year-old woman presents with exertional syncope, loud systolic ejection murmur best at the right 2nd intercostal space radiating to the carotids. Most likely diagnosis?
Answer: A — Classic features of severe aortic stenosis: exertional syncope, systolic ejection murmur at RUSB radiating to carotids.
18. A patient with newly diagnosed diabetes has polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss and random plasma glucose 320 mg/dL. Best next step to determine type?
Answer: B — In unclear adult presentations, C-peptide and autoimmune markers help differentiate type 1 (low C-peptide, positive antibodies) from type 2; immediate glycemic control may still be necessary.
19. A 30-year-old woman has fever, productive cough, pleuritic chest pain, and lobar consolidation on CXR. Sputum Gram stain shows gram-positive lancet-shaped diplococci. Most likely organism?
Answer: C — S. pneumoniae classically appears as gram-positive lancet-shaped diplococci and commonly causes lobar pneumonia.
20. A 65-year-old with progressive lower limb weakness, back pain and urinary retention; MRI shows an enhancing extradural mass compressing the spinal cord. Most important immediate step?
Answer: D — Acute spinal cord compression with neurological deficits requires urgent decompression to prevent permanent disability.
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